Answers to objections on the KJV  by Peter Ruckman

   From time to time we get letters from the Alexandrian Cult that deal
with everything except the issue, which as anyone knows is final
authority. The latest kiddie to get on the bandwagon is an amateur
Alexandrian named Chris McHugh, who, like Hymers, is offering money to
people who can prove, etc. He will no more pay up than Hymers will;
they are all the same.

   The child takes the Alexandrian party line, which presently is that
belief in the King James Bible as being the Holy Bible without proven
error is "a hellish doctrine of devils."

   This child offers a hundred dollars to anybody who can answer the
following questions. (Not one question has anything to do with the
issue. Every question is a hypothetical question built upon unavailable
material dealing with unproved assertions.)

   1. What version of the Bible was the infallible, inerrant, inspired
translation prior to 1611? To which it may be answered, `Who knows, and
who cares?'

   We are not before 1611, we are after 1611.

   2. Why would God wait more than fifteen hundred years to provide His
Church with an infallible, inerrant, inspired translation? The answer
is, "You don't know if He did or if He didn't. If He did, it would have
been His business and not yours."

   3. If there was an infallible, inerrant, inspired translation, is it
identical to the King James? The answer, "Who knows, and what
difference would it make if it was or it wasn't?"

   4. If it is identical to the King James, why was it necessary to
produce the King James in the first place? The answer is, "Because it
may not have been in English, and God was interested in reaching the
whole world with the universal language."

   5. If it isn't identical, how can they both be infallible? The
answer to that is so simple, a girl scout could get it. "1 Samuel 22
and Psalm 18 are not identical, and both of them are infallible."

   6. How can anyone maintain the King James Version to be inspired and
still maintain that the canon of scripture ended with the last book of
the Bible? Well easy, stupid, "The same way Jesus Christ accepted the
scriptures of His day as being `given by inspiration of God' after the
close of the Old Testament (Malachi)."

   7. If the King James Version is infallible, then why were numerous
revisions made in it? Easy, "You make it better reading while still
being infallible."

   8. Which edition of the AV is the exact, inerrant, infallible
edition? Answer, "Any edition."

   And so forth and so on. Observing all this malarkey, there is no
reference to the issue at all. The issue for Chris would be simple.
What is his infallible authority for talking like a fool? Chris McHugh,
like any Alexandrian, has no infallible authority higher than his own
noodle. All Alexandrians think they are gods, or God.

   Note that McHugh craftily inserted the word "version" in his first
question. Why didn't he just say "What Bible"? Do you know why he
didn't? Because no one in Chris's day had an inerrant, inspired Bible,
according to what all Alexandrians believe.

   "Cute," aren't they?